The Salvation of Satan?

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3 Responses to The Salvation of Satan?

  1. Robert Fortuin says:

    It is difficult to think about the salvation of those we hate. Satan is the first among them, how can we possibly go about reconciliation with evil, darkness, death? Talbot is right I think in raising an important question – the question of the personification, or incarnation of evil, can we think of Satan as a real person? If we can, and why not?, then salvation of this creature too is not beyond the reach of love.

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  2. William Braddell says:

    Fr, I realize what I’m about to ask about is somewhat off topic from the salvation of Satan but it is bothering me and I hope me asking about it won’t annoy you. I’ve noticed some infernalists citing Judith 16:17 as proof as of their viewpoint. Do you think the implication of eternal suffering in that verse is a result of an imperfect translation of the Greek?

    Kind regards,


    • Fr Aidan Kimel says:

      Hi, William. I’m afraid I do not read Greek, so we will have to rely on the exegesis of our betters. 🙂 I checked ‘Terms for Eternity’ but Ramelli and Konstan do not discuss it (or if they do, I can’t find it). For those who do read Greek, here’s the verse in question:

      οὐαὶ ἔθνεσιν ἐπανισταμένοις τῷ γένει μου· Κύριος παντοκράτωρ ἐκδικήσει αὐτοὺς ἐν ἡμέρᾳ κρίσεως δοῦναι πῦρ καὶ σκώληκας εἰς σάρκας αὐτῶν, καὶ κλαύσονται ἐν αἰσθήσει ἕως αἰῶνος.

      I found one place on the internet where it was suggested that ἕως αἰῶνος might best be translated as “unto the eon” or “unto the age.”

      But perhaps more importantly, let me ask, Does the doctrine of eternal punishment hang upon a verse or two? But more critically, how does the death and resurrection affect our interpretation of such verses? Is not interminable punishment unworthy of the Father of Jesus Christ?

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