St Thomas Aquinas: Divine Providence, Free Will, and Determinism

How likely is it that philosophers who espouse libertarian free will will find the Thomist construal of double agency convincing, despite the brilliance of my previous articles?1 Probably as likely as hitting four of a kind on the river. In the dual sources account, God remains the transcendent and necessary cause of human actions. Even if a person phenomenologically judges that his or her actions fulfill the criteria of libertarian freedom, the fact remains that it could be a delusion generated by our simulation code. Libertarians will not accept a philosophical account that does not guarantee that we are free to choose otherwise. This guarantee requires, so they contend, that the divine Creator not generate the specific acts and content of our willing. I—and I alone—must be the logically sufficient cause of my choosing and acting. If this condition is not met, then my behavior is determined and I’m no better off than a coded character in the The Thirteenth Floor.2

St Thomas Aquinas, however, expressly rejects the libertarian conclusion because it places human choices outside of the divine providence. His discussion in the Summa Contra Gentiles is worthy of consideration. After citing two biblical texts in support of the claim that God can move wills without resorting to violence, Thomas observes that others in the theological tradition, preeminently Origen of Alexandria, have argued otherwise: “That is, they would say that God causes willing and accomplishing within us in the sense that He causes in us the power of willing, but not in such a way that He makes us will this or that” (SCG III.89.1). Because of this conviction, these theologians inferred that “providence does not apply to things subject to free choice, that is, to acts of choice” (SCG III.89.2). Thomas presents his counterargument:

Besides, God not only gives powers to things but, beyond that, no thing can act by its own power unless it acts through His power, as we showed above. So, man cannot use the power of will that has been given him except in so far as he acts through the power of God. Now, the being through whose power the agent acts is the cause not only of the power, but also of the act. This is apparent in the case of an artist through whose power an instrument works, even though it does not get its own form from this artist, but is merely applied to action by this man. Therefore, God is for us the cause not only of our will, but also of our act of willing. (SCG III.89.5)

It is not enough, Thomas seems to be saying, to say that we been divinely given the power to will; we also need the power of God to do so. He then concludes that God must be the cause of the act of willing. But how does Thomas logically reach this conclusion? We first need to jump backwards to earlier chapters. There we learn the following:

First, all things are divinely directed to a good, and the ultimate good is God himself: “Therefore, the ultimate end is the first cause of all. Now, to be the first cause of all must be appropriate to the first being, that is, to God, as was shown above. So, God is the ultimate end of all things” (SCG 3.17).

Second, given that God is the final cause of all things he has created, God governs and directs all things through his providence toward the attainment of their ultimate end (SCG 3.64).

Third, every created operating agent acts by the power of God, the first unmoved mover: “It is evident, next, that God is the cause enabling all operating agents to operate. In fact, every operating agent is a cause of being in some way, either of substantial or of accidental being. Now, nothing is a cause of being unless by virtue of its acting through the power of God, as we showed. Therefore, every operating agent acts through God’s power” (SCG 3.67.1).

Fourth, God is the uncreated cause of all finite actions: “Every agent acts by the divine power. Therefore, He is the One Who is the cause of action for all things” (SCG 3.67.6).

Fifth, God has appointed created agents to bring about created effects; hence it is necessary to affirm that God and created agent simultaneously cause the effect: “It is also apparent that the same effect is not attributed to a natural cause and to divine power in such a way that it is partly done by God, and partly by the natural agent; rather, it is wholly done by both, according to a different way, just as the same effect is wholly attributed to the instrument and also wholly to the principal agent” (SCG 3.70.6).

Sixth, no created agent can insert an act of will into an intellectual being. The will can only be moved by understanding, i.e., by persuasion: “No created substance can move the will except by means of a good which is understood. Now, this is done by showing it that something is a good thing to do: this is the act of persuading. Therefore, no created substance can act on the will, or be the cause of our act of choice, except in the way of a persuading agent” (SCG 3.88.2).

Seventh, because every intellectual being desires God as its ultimate Good, “God alone can move the will in the fashion of an agent. . . . and incline our will to something” (SCG 3.88.3-4).

Eighth, if the will is moved by an external force, this movement will be violent and contrary to the nature of intellectual being. Every voluntary action must be moved from within. “So, the only agent that can cause a movement of the will, without violence, is that which causes an intrinsic principle of this movement, and such a principle is the very power of the will. Now, this agent is God, Who alone creates a soul, as we showed in Book Two. Therefore, God alone can move the will in the fashion of an agent, without violence” (SCG 3.88.6).

Although I have omitted a huge swath of Thomas’s argumentation, the first passage quoted above now makes logical sense (I hope). As the transcendent source and act of all created motion, God is not only the power of willing but is the transcendent cause of willing: “Therefore, among spiritual things, also, every movement of the will must be caused by the first will, which is the will of God” (SCG 3.89.6).

If this is true, is the free will of intellectual beings violated? Thomas answers in his Summa Theologiae:

Free-will is the cause of its own movement, because by his free-will man moves himself to act. But it does not of necessity belong to liberty that what is free should be the first cause of itself, as neither for one thing to be cause of another need it be the first cause. God, therefore, is the first cause, Who moves causes both natural and voluntary. And just as by moving natural causes He does not prevent their acts being natural, so by moving voluntary causes He does not deprive their actions of being voluntary: but rather is He the cause of this very thing in them; for He operates in each thing according to its own nature. (ST I.83)

It therefore follows that intellectual beings are subject to divine providence, not only because of the metaphysics of created action but because of the divine goodness and love:

Furthermore, the governance of providence stems from the divine love whereby God loves the things created by Him; in fact, love consists especially in this, “that the lover wills the good for his loved one.” So, the more that God loves things, the more do they fall under His providence. Moreover, Sacred Scripture also teaches this in the Psalm (144:20) when it states: “The Lord keeps all those who love Him.” And the Philosopher, also, supports this view, in Ethics X [8], when he says that God takes greatest care of those who love understanding, as He does of His friends. It may, then, be gathered from this, that He loves intellectual substances best. Therefore, their acts of will and choice fall under His providence. (SCG 3.90.6)

If God is not the transcendent cause of human choosing, as the advocates of libertarian will insist he cannot be, then he cannot providentially guide and direct intellectual beings to their proper end: the free actions of rational beings would be outside his control. The libertarian philosopher, therefore, faces a choice: restrict the scope of divine providence, adopt a non-classical understanding of divinity (process theology anyone?), or reconsider the dual sources account of human agency.

Thomas asserts the divine predestination is an element and expression of divine providence. Let’s assume that R. V. Matava and Matthews Grant are correct and double agency is compatible with libertarian freedom. How then does the Thomist Deity accomplish the ultimate salvation of the elect apart from the deterministic exercise of his will? In itself, double agency does not explain, for instance, how God might cause a wicked person to freely turn away from their sin; indeed, such a causing is arguably a violation free will and personal autonomy. Something more seems to be needed.

Footnotes

[1] See “How Does God Cause Free Human Actions?” and “Divine Universal Causality, Determinism, and the Mystery of Double Agency.”

[2] For a libertarian critique of the view of double agency that I have presented in my previous articles, see Mark Spencer, “Divine Causality and Created Freedom,” Nova et Vetera, 14 (2016): 949-950: “In its second sense, ‘is able to will otherwise than one wills’ is rightly said of a created person if and only if that person alone can, even given all other causes or conditions, move him or herself to some exercise of act of will and specify the content of that act. . . . As we have seen, some versions of [the universal causality model] contend that, since God is a transcendent cause, he can cause any creature of any sort, even free acts, without competition with that creature with respect to freedom. But I contend that this is so only in the sense that God causes a free act qua being (and qua including a primary act of the will), not in the sense of God causing a free act qua having the content of a secondary act of the will. If God causes the latter, then the creature is not free in the second sense of the phrase.”

(Go to “The Extrinsic Model of Divine Causality“)

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33 Responses to St Thomas Aquinas: Divine Providence, Free Will, and Determinism

  1. Iainlovejoy says:

    I’m not clear whether Thomas sees divine causality in will as being responsible for the choices made by free beings (i.e. wills and creates that they should do A rather than B), or whether God merely creates the being with the potential to choose either A or B, provides the means by which the being is able to make the choice then implements through His will whatever choice is then made?

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  2. Counter-Rebel says:

    “In itself, double agency does not explain, for instance, how God might cause a wicked person to freely turn away from their sin; indeed, such a causing is arguably a violation [of] free will and personal autonomy.”

    As Richard Swinburne explains, a basic action is one that isn’t done through any prior doing. It’s just done. How does one do a basic action? By doing it/by exercising their power to do it/by existing. God’s causing anything, e.g. conversion, would be a basic action. He causes conversion by…causing conversion. (I suppose “by existing” would be technically correct.)

    “Libertarians will not accept a philosophical account that does not guarantee that we are free to choose otherwise. This guarantee requires that the divine Creator not generate the specific acts and content of our willing.”

    *Some* libertarians, anyway. They would need an argument against WM Grant’s dual sources account.

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  3. John H says:

    To hell with all of this nonsense about libertarian freedom; it gives me a chronic headache. Aquinas never had such a notion anyhow and those who contend otherwise are reading their own preconceived notions into his philosophy. Human beings are actually most free when they will the Good and then there is no alternative choice available. And libertarian freedom is inapplicable where the good choice is so obvious that there are no alternatives. Rather than argue about libertarian freedom until the cows come home, why not just jettison free will altogether–as the eliminativists have done–and admit that if the God of classical theology exists, he determines everything in one simple, eternal act?

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    • Robert Fortuin says:

      Right, but then one will have to jettison the free-will defense of infernalism. Operating with an incorrect understanding of free-will (i.e. one without a transcendental determination) is precisely what is used to underwrite the existence of a hell without end.

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      • stmichael71 says:

        If it were impossible for us to avoid sinning, given God’s choices, then God makes us sin. Thus, if it is not free will that causes to commit and persist in those sins which end us up in hell, and it is God’s choices make it that we can do nothing other than commit and persist in our sins (one way or another), then God makes us sin.

        If you all want to embrace this conclusion, I’d think that’s a serious problem (even the necessity of universal salvation would not resolve the fact that you believe God causes/necessitates/determines/wants our sins), but be clear and honest that this is your view. And be honest in stating clearly that it is not Aquinas’ position. Aquinas explicitly rejects that God’s choices make us unable to avoid sin.

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        • John H says:

          It does not bother me in the slightest that God causes sin. And I have Scripture to support me in that belief: I form the light, and create darkness: I make peace, and create evil: I the Lord do all these things. Is 45:7. So long as God brings a greater good out of sin and suffering, and the salvation of all is surely an infinite Good, than that’s OK. Aquinas does in fact assert that God causes free actions. Father Al has provided numerous quotations from his writings which establish that conclusion. Plus W Matthews Grant unequivocally asserts that God causes the act of sin. So, no Father Rooney, your comments do not change my views.

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          • stmichael71 says:

            You can believe what you like. I do not think, however, that universalism would be a good view if God causes us to sin. God would want you to do evil. If that is true, God wants to harm you. It does not follow, I’d think, that union with a God that loves evil and wants to harm you would be good.

            Aquinas’ position is not yours, however. Aquinas’ view is that “God is the cause of the act of sin: and yet He is not the cause of sin, because He does not cause the act to have a defect.” Aquinas then does not hold that God causes us to sin. He causes the acts by which we sin, not that they are sinful. W Matthews Grant is well-aware of this, as that’s the title of his paper: “Aquinas on How God Causes the Act of Sin without Causing Sin Itself.”

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          • stmichael71 says:

            Also, to quote Francis de Sales:

            “And when it is said that ‘in sinning we are incited, pushed, necessitated by the will, ordinance, decree, and predestination of God,’ is this not to blaspheme against all reason, and against the majesty of the supreme goodness? Such is the fine theology of Zwingle, Calvin and Beza. ‘But,’ says Beza, ‘you will say that they could not resist the will of God, that is, the decree; I acknowledge it: but as they could not so they would not: they could not wish otherwise, I own, as to the event and working (energiam), but yet the will of Adam was not forced.’ Goodness of God, I call you as my witness! You have pushed me to do evil; you have so decreed, ordained and willed. I could not act otherwise, I could not will otherwise, what fault of mine is there? O God of my heart, chastise my will, if it is able not to will evil and wills to will it, but if it cannot help willing evil, and thou art the cause of its impossibility, what fault of mine can there be? If this is not contrary to reason, I protest that there is no reason in the world. The law of God is impossible, according to Calvin and the others. What follows, except that Our Lord is a tyrant who commands impossible things? If it is impossible, why is it commanded?”

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          • Robert F says:

            So, quite apart from the question of whether or not they occurred, if God actually did order the wars of herem in the OT, that would’ve been totally consistent with his character? There’s nothing inherently immoral such an order, if it comes from God, who can make greater good out of the evil he orders?

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        • Robert Fortuin says:

          Then you misunderstand my position, for it is transcendental determination which makes possible, and guarantees, true liberty.

          But this has been discussed at length, no need to rehash.

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  4. John H says:

    Robert F., You would be correct in your criticism if God is conceived of as some type of all powerful person like Zeus, Odin or the goddess Kali. But the God of classical theism is more than personal: He is eternal, immutable, impassible and simple. You might as well criticize the Buddhist sunyata for giving rise to all of the suffering and chaos found in the samsara. It’s a category mistake, really.

    Father Rooney: To say that God causes the act of sin without causing sin itself is a distinction without a difference, as one of my law professors used to say. Yes, I will happily concede that Aquinas maintains God merely permits sin by failing to provide all persons with the efficacious/sanctifying grace needed for salvation. And He certainly has no obligation to do so. But that is rather like saying that it is OK to not throw a drowning person a life preserver after they have fallen overboard even though there are many readily available on the ship. There is admittedly no legal obligation to act under such circumstances, but surely one’s conscience would compel one to throw that poor bloke the life preserver, no? So shall we conclude that the conscience of the One Who alone is Good is to be judged inferior to the moral compass of His poor creatures?

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    • Robert F says:

      You’re speaking a language that I don’t understand, mostly because I don’t see where love comes in. Your description makes God sound to me like an implacable, uncaring force of nature that cannot hear, see, or feel. Not in the least human, not in the least like Jesus, but some strange, frightening deity behind Jesus’ back that I cannot see.

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    • Joe says:

      John H., 

      You’re doing it again. 

      You write:

      “You would be correct in your criticism [for God giving rise to all of the suffering and chaos] if God is conceived of as some type of all powerful person…”

      And then you write:

      “So shall we conclude that the conscience of the One Who alone is Good is to be judged inferior to the moral compass of His poor creatures?”

      No. Sorry, you can’t have it both ways. 

      You will have to articulate how being “more than personal” makes it a category mistake to criticize God as morally culpable for giving rise to all of the suffering in the world, while maintaining that it would not be a category mistake to criticize God as morally culpable if he failed to give rise to a rescue from said suffering and chaos. Please tell us how invoking God’s conscience and moral compass is a category mistake with regards to the former but not the latter? 

      Also, please tell us what “more than personal” even means. It sounds nice but what exactly does that mean? Is it anything more than an empty, specious phrase of convenience— God can be either personal or “more-than-personal” depending on what suits your needs? In this case, God is more-than-personal (and presumably beyond human morality) when comes to being the ultimate cause of unfathomable misery…yet curiously, very much personal when it comes to “throwing the life preserver” of salvation. 

      If it is a category mistake to invoke God’s morality with regards to the ultimate cause and ground of evil and suffering, then it is also a category mistake to invoke the same with regards to salvation or the lack thereof. 

      Furthermore, it would follow that a God that can be morally blameless while also being the source, cause, and ground of evil/suffering would also be morally blameless while failing to save any or all creatures. 

      Do you truly not see that the salvation of any, much less elevation of all, would require the very moral agent that is (according to human morality) made impossible by the permission of horrendous evil and suffering in the first place; through serving as the ultimate origin, cause, and ground of suffering?

      This is all that your “moral argument” achieves:

      a.) either there is no moral agent as creator (as evidenced by horrendous suffering)

      b.) God as “more than personal” transcends human morality in such a way that God’s morality is indistinguishable from what human beings know and experience as evil.

      Either way, once again, this moral argument fails. 

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      • John H says:

        Joe, you fail to grasp the distinction between the prevention of transitory suffering which is a relative good and the prevention of eternal suffering, which is an infinite eternal good, especially if it results in the salvation of all. That is what makes Meditation One in TASBS so powerful. God’s failure to effect the ultimate salvation of all would simply mean that God is not the Good.

        As to the problem of evil/suffering, I think that we have already addressed that in an earlier thread so I won’t rehash it here. Only the blessed in heaven as well as those granted a foretaste of the beatific vision through mystical experiences here on earth know the answer to that conundrum as they all have a God’s eye view of things. Job repented not because God’s speech from the whirlwind adequately addressed the problem of evil but rather because he saw God and lived.

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        • Joe says:

          John H: “you fail to grasp the distinction between the prevention of transitory suffering which is a relative good and the prevention of eternal suffering, which is an infinite eternal good, especially if it results in the salvation of all.”

          No, I’m not failing to grasp the distinction. I understand that they are distinct and, in some sense, incomparable as anything eternal is incomparable to anything finite. 

          What I am pointing out is merely that is that you cannot arrive as this argument via analogizing God’s morality to human morality, for the humane compassionate person seeks the relative good and avoids inflicting relative (transitory) suffering to the extent that they are capable. This is especially true when such suffering is seen as non-instrumental and avoidable. 

          So the crux of the question becomes: Is it within God’s power to prevent transitory (yet extreme and protacted) suffering of creatures on their way toward the realization of infinite good? 

          If this is indeed not possible, then although problematic, so be it. 
          If it is possible, then we have an even greater problem.

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          • Robert F says:

            “If it is indeed not possible, then although problematic, so be it.”

            If it is not possible for God to realize the infinite good for creatures without allowing transitory evil, then it is also possible that he has other limitations to his power, for instance possibly the inability to prevent some creatures from rejecting him forever — is that the problematic matter, or one of the problematic matters, you are alluding to, Joe?

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  5. I like Mats Wahlberg’s distinction between freedom & autonomy. See https://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/full/10.1111/moth.12816

    Wahlberg’s description of autonomy matches my intuitions re our self-determination of HOW (& how much) we’ll realize divine intimacy. His description of freedom resonates with my intuition THAT we’ll enjoy divine intimacy.

    I reject Wahlberg’s Autonomy Defense of Hell because it invokes a beatific contingency based on divine indwelling. That contingency would only work for those who accept the possibility of a concrete natura pura. It fails, however, for those of us who believe that we, as divine images, are constitutively indwelled (not merely omnipresenced like divine shadows & vestiges). This isn’t to say I reject it as a logical defense re the problem of evil.

    I find conceptions like sufficient & efficacious grace, predestination, election, inancaritability, impeccability, transitory beatific visions, the Immaculate Conception, infused contemplation, charisms, healings, miracles & other Catholic spiritual staples immensely meaningful. I think Maritain’s Reverie & apokatastenai re secondary beatitudes was inspired. Of course, I believe we do sin, both venially & gravely.

    I just adamantly reject perditionism to the extent that it doesn’t even successfully refer. Election refers rather to more expansive scopes of sanctity, beatitude & intimacy, to exceptionally graced earthly sojourns ordered toward the benefit of all people. Post-mortem purgative graces, which can vary in the duration & severity of the sufferings involved, will be utterly efficacious in our universal attainment of eternal well being & eternal life of abundance. Some will enjoy a superabundance. We’re ultimately self-determining whether to be merely friends or truly lovers of God, not choosing to either hate or love God.

    Both Noia & Wahlberg are right, along with DBH, that a free will defense of hell doesn’t work.

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    • DBH says:

      The problem with Wahlberg’s argument is the author’s failure to grasp the point about the nature of personality. In fact, he confirms its solvency precisely by having to miss its point in order to make his (really quite evil) counter argument. He is, as his tradition requires, merely making the same mistake as ever: in thinking that friendship with God is possible if it requires a person to be other than who he or she actually is. It once again confuses God with an option over against other options, rather than the sole good end of the will within which all other loves subsist. Yet again, he is arguing a kind of modal impossibility: if he is right, a person cannot be saved as a person, but only replaced by some other thing. Then of course come the two predictable escape hatches: the satanic argument that some greater good could possibly morally outweigh the evil of a rational soul’s eternal suffering, and the fideistic claptrap about accepting a seeming paradox on the grounds that it is supposedly revealed. It’s an embarrassing piece of circular reasoning, but a worse than embarrassing display of moral incoherence.

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      • Robert F says:

        “…the satanic argument that some greater good could possibly morally outweigh the evil of a rational soul’s eternal suffering….”

        But, it is not a satanic argument that some greater good could possibly morally outweigh the evil of God allowing a rational soul to experience transitory suffering, even if that suffering is, to quote another commenter, “extreme and protracted”?

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        • DBH says:

          Obviously. That is almost a banal truism. It is always possible for a good to be greater than an evil that is strictly bounded.

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      • D’accord. That’s exactly how perditionists’ arguments strike me.

        There are also pronounced asymmetries between our & their skeptical theist moves & mysterian appeals.

        As universalists, even while acknowledging how fallible we all are & inchoately we might grasp them, we do affirm that divine laws have been written on our hearts by the Spirit & that their concommitant affective dispositions are appreciably consonant with the special revelation of the Father – as our Abba – by the Son.

        Because of this, we believe we can largely trust our shared parental instincts, moral intuitions, aesthetic sensibilities and common sense. We believe that we can rest confidently assured that those won’t all be turned on their heads eschatologically. Rather, they’ll all be exceedingly fulfilled & far surpassed without being in any measure overturned.

        By “turned on their heads” or “overturned,” I refer to such as would occur per a putative perditionism, which would entail realities that are parentally abhorrent, morally unintelligible, aesthetically repugnant & nonsensically absurd.

        Now, it does seem that some analytics do aspire to inform their arguments with at least a scintilla of Franciscan knowledge, such as when they amelioratively allow the damned certain types & degrees of secondary beatitude. Still, they miss how those arguments have already self-subverted from moral modal collapses & irrational notions of freedom, e.g. as if a finite person could finally & definitively reject any reality, while possessing only an inadequate knowledge of same.

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        • And I do want to say that DBH pointed out what I also hold to be the bigger & more fundamental problem with Wahlberg’s defense. That’s to acknowledge that it doesn’t work no matter where one stands or how one argumentatively stipulates re the controversy de auxiliis.

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      • Logan(mercifullayman) says:

        I know Schelling is on your list of “not so fond of’s” but he does make the same point in his “Offenbarung.” Freedom is our highest principle, our godhood. And in tying even with the Gita, it is through becoming as God that one finds freedom. The closer we move from the outer edge of the circle to the center, the more free we become. One can squabble over causes sui/divine reductionism, but the truth is, he saw it as you do as well. No claim on divinity can spare the circular nature of creation/return with the focus on the gift of freedom solely being about freely returning and overcoming necessity by theosis/becoming like God.

        But alas, maybe Rooney needs to read outside of the dogma/tradition. Or better yet, read better Catholics…. Say Henry, or de Chardin.

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        • DBH says:

          To whom are you speaking? I love Schelling.

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          • Logan(mercifullayman) says:

            LOL you! But that was my way of getting an admission of what I already knew. I see you being a corrective to him and kinda winking at him over someone like Hegel…. And as much as your team Bulgakov(read theophilosophical Orioles)…you have to admit he reads Schelling poorly.

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        • DBH says:

          Incidentally, there is no one actually named de Chardin. Not to be pedantic, but his surname was Teilhard and his Christian name was Pierre; the title de Chardin was an irregularly inherited appanage, dating through his distaff line to the revived monarchy.

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          • Logan(mercifullayman) says:

            Meant that more as an expression of commonality for those who may have read him. I’ve found him enriching with my own penchant for Aurobindo.

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          • Robert F says:

            DBH,

            Have you ever heard the name, William Irwin Thompson? I ask in connection with Teilhard, since Teilhard (as well as Aurobindo) was one of the main inspirations for Thompson’s thinking and writing, as well his organization of the Lindisfarne Association, which included a diverse group of international intellectuals, in the 1970s. He and the Association were concerned with what they considered the recent development of a “new planetary culture.” Of his books, the one I’m most familiar with, The Time Falling Bodies Take to Light, was concerned with the evolution of consciousness and society as this related to global religious mythology, which he considered the “history of the soul,” from prehistoric times to the modern era. He had wide and seemingly encyclopedic erudition, and he was a committed practitioner of Kriya yoga and Yoga Nidra. You might know all this about him, but then, though he was by no means off the grid, he was an obscure figure, and wanted it that way, so you many never have heard of him.

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  6. Consider this Lubacian maxim: “In reality, Providence, far from being Destiny, is the force that has conquered it.”

    That would be consistent with: In reality, Apokatastasis, far from being necessitated, manifests the logoi of our freedom as it has been determined by the Logos.

    That would be consistent with – not the decadent, but – an authentic Thomism.

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